OK, well, I'm just going to jump right on into it.
Matthew, Mark, and Luke all have the Last Supper as a Passover Seder. Yeshuah was crucified on the next day, so he was crucified on the first day of Passover,or the 15th of Nissan.
However, the Book of John reads, "Now it was the day of preparation for the Passover . . . . Then he handed him over to them to be crucified." (19:14-16)
Wait... so he was crucified on the 14th of Nissan then? OK.... surely he wasn't crucified on both days was he? That'd be kinda hard to pull off...
Actually, the difference between these two dates isn't something that can easily be explained away either... There is a LOT that is thrown off throughout the rest of the Book of John that now becomes contradictory to the other three gospels.
For one, in John's version, the bread and the wine is not included because that is part of the Seder, and the Last Supper was the day before the Seder. So Communion as we know it does not exist according to John.
Also, when Judas leaves the meal, in John's account the disciples assume he is going to purchase the Passover meal, but according to Matthew, Mark, and Luke, they had just eaten the very meal Judas was going to buy. Were they still hungry then?
Also, in John 18:28 the Jews do not want to enter Pilate's house so as to avoid ceremonial uncleanness so that they could still eat the Passover which Matthew, Mark, and Luke say they have already eaten.
Thus, the 4th Gospel of Jesus Christ is in question. If this particular Gospel is inspired by G-d, why does it contradict the other 3 Gospels?
This doesn't mean the other 3 Gospels aren't infallible, but the Book of John sure isn't, and thus it lacks the crucial qualities required of Scripture.
This isn't the only way it contradicts the other 3, either. Be on the lookout for my next post : The Resurrection as told by John
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3 comments:
This is not a direct reply to your post, but I have a question....
If I strive to follow after God with all my heart, soul, and mind, and love my neighbor as I love myself, is there a problem? Even if as an addition, I believe Yeshua is the Son of the Father?
If not, then why the persistent posting?
It's one thing to forsake the Messiah, it's another to forsake the Messiah and try to persuade others to do the same.
Honestly, that is a question that has no direct answer.
On the one side, believing Yeshuah to be the Son of G-d is not a sin, and I believe, so long as you follow at the least the Seven Noahide Laws, you will partake in the Afterlife.
However, the Trinity places Yeshua as G-d, and in that area, it violates the Law of placing no other god before Hashem.
eh...I'll post my reply in here too (although it's in a PM on mypraize as well)
OK, I understand where you're coming from.
...and naturally I would disagree with the last part. :P As Yeshua said, "if you have seen me you have seen the Father"..."the Father and I are one." So to worship Yeshua is to worship the Father IMO...but I don't think you'll agree. lol ;)
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